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Title: Religion and Spirituality/Opposing Views/Christianity/Latter Day Saints - Book of Mormon and Doctrine and Covenants Shows that the two books are inconsistent and do not agree with the Bible.
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Principles_and_Powers__How_to_Interpret_Renaissance_Philosophy_of_Nature_Philosophically? A 2001 article by Paul Richard Blum, from the journal Minerva. Considers the problems which the Renaissance philosophers of nature attempted to solve.

Golden_Triangle_Mediums___Psychic_Development Spiritual, psychic and medium training. Offers a wide variety of instruction, in person only. Located in Ontario, Canada.

Ein_Service_der_ooe_Senatoren_-_Junior_Chamber_International_JCI An association of JCI Senators in Europe.

Clan_McCammond Information, contact and reunions for the clan MacCammond/McCammond

Tale_of_Confiscated_Kayapo_Feather_Headdresses Illustrated essay of several indigenous headdresses that were confiscated by the US Fish & Wildlife Service and are currently in the Smithsonian Museum.


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(This web page compares Doctrine and Covenants and the Book of Mormon with each other and with the Bible to see if they are in harmony.  It does not represent my personal views on the Bible. When defending what one believes, he or she quotes the source of their belief, such as the Bible or Book of Mormon.  So the written word outweighs opinion.  What we base our belief on is the written word.  Regardless of what we say we believe, it has to be in harmony with the written word.  And that is all this web site does: It compares what is written in the Book of Mormon and Doctrine and Covenants with the Bible. I do not add to what is said; I only quote it.) Table of Contents INTRODUCTION 8. BLACK SKIN IS LOATHSOME 1. MAN IS SPIRIT, ANGELS ARE NOT 9. JESUS – THE FATHER AND THE SON 2. GOSPEL GIVEN THROUGH ANGELS 10. THE HOLY SPIRIT BECAME FLESH 3. JOSEPH SMITH GREATER THAN JESUS 11. 2ND COMING WHEN JOSEPH SMITH WOULD BE 85 4. FULLNESS OF GOSPEL GIVEN BY JOSEPH SMITH 12. GODS ABOVE ALL THINGS 5. ONE GOD BUT ALSO MANY GODS 13. JOSEPH SMITH HEAD OF THE CHURCH 6. JESUS IS THE FATHER, SON AND HOLY SPIRIT 14. JESUS IS GOD ALMIGHTY 7. "LINE UPON LINE" A BLESSING AND A CURSE CONCLUSION       INTRODUCTION   (Back to Top) D&C 20:8,9,10,11 8 ...the Book of Mormon; 9 Which contains a record of a fallen people, and the fullness of the gospel of Jesus Christ to the Gentiles and to the Jews also; 10 Which was given by inspiration, and is confirmed to others by the ministering of angels, and is declared unto the world by them - 11 Proving to the world that the holy scriptures are true, and that God does inspire men and call them to his holy work in this age and generation, as well as in generations of old; 12 Thereby showing that he is the same God yesterday, today, and forever. Amen. Response: The Book of Mormon claims to contain the fullness of the gospel. It is to prove that it, being "the holy scriptures," is true. And by proving that the BofM (Book of Mormon) is true, it is to prove that God does not change. If God is the same God as he was yesterday in the Bible, then he is the same God today in the BofM. Is the teaching of God in the BofM and D&C consistent with the Bible? Are the BofM and D&C consistent with each other?  Let's find out. Moses 3:5,7 5 For I, the Lord God, created all things, of which I have spoken, spiritually, before they were naturally upon the face of the earth. 7 And I, the Lord God, formed man from the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul, the first flesh upon the earth, the first man also; nevertheless, all things were before created; but spiritually were they created and made according to my word. Response: According to D&C, God created "ALL things" spiritually before he created them naturally. 1 Corinthians 15:46 46 The spiritual did not come first, but the natural, and after that the spiritual. Response: The Bible says the spiritual did NOT come first; the natural came first and THEN the spiritual.  But D&C says God created "ALL things" spiritually BEFORE he created the natural. Moses 3:7 also states that the "first flesh upon the earth" was man.  Verse 5 states, "and there was not yet flesh upon the earth, neither in the water, neither in the air."  So here, "flesh" refers to living creatures, not just man.  According to Moses 3, the first flesh was man. Genesis 1:20,24,26 20 And God said, 'Let the water teem with living creatures, and let birds fly above the earth...'" 24 And God said, 'Let the land produce living creatures according to their kinds: livestock, creatures that move along the ground, and wild animals...'" 26 Then God said, 'Let us make man in our image...'" Response: The LDS book says man was the first flesh created on earth before any other flesh (including flesh upon the earth, in water and in the air).  But the Bible says animals were created before man. Animals were created in verses 20 and 24; man was created later in verse 26. So D&C clearly contradicts the Bible. D&C 3:2,3 2 For God doth not...vary from that which he hath said... 3 Remember, remember that it is not the work of God that is frustrated, but the work of men... Response:  If God does not vary from what he said, why did he? 1 Nephi 13:40 (1830 first edition of Book of Mormon, pg. 32): 40 These last records...shall make known to all kindreds, tongues, and people, that the Lamb of God is the Eternal Father and the Savior... 1 Nephi 13:40 (1964 edition of the Book of Mormon):  40 These last records...shall make known to all kindreds, tongues, and people, that the Lamb of God is the Son of the Eternal Father, and the Savior... 1 Nephi 11:18 (1830 edition of BofM, pg. 85): 18 Behold, the virgin which thou seest, is the mother of God, after the manner of the flesh. 1 Nephi 11:18 (new editions) 18 Behold, the virgin whom thou seest is the mother of the Son of God, after the manner of the flesh. Mosiah 21:28  (1830 edition, pg. 200):  28 king Benjamin had a gift from God, whereby he could interpret such engravings ... Mosiah 21:28 (new editions) 28 king Mosiah had a gift from God, whereby he could interpret such engravings ... Response: The introductin of the BofM in paragraph 6 states: "the Book of Mormon was the most correct book on earth." Was that referring to the 1830 edition, or the new edition that has been corrected and changed? If God does not vary from what he said, and if the BofM is the most correct book, why were changes made?  In D&C, The Articles of Faith states: "We believe the Bible to be the word of God as far as it is translated correctly."  Do they say the same for the BofM?  The beginning of the BofM has A Brief Explanation About The Book Of Mormon.  The last paragraph says, "About this edition: Some minor errors in the text have been perpetuated in past editions of the Book of Mormon."  Is changing calling the Lamb of God "the Eternal Father" to "the Son of the Eternal Father" "minor errors"?  Is changing calling the virgin "the mother of God" to "the mother of the Son of God" "minor errors"?  That changes the doctrine completely. (These are only some changes that have been made.  There are many more.)       1. MAN IS SPIRIT, ANGELS ARE NOT  (Back to Top) D&C 93:33,38 33 For man is spirit. 38 ...spirit of man... Response: First it says man IS spirit, then it says the spirit OF man. The Bible says God formed "man" from the dust of the ground (Gen. 2:7).  Since our spirit was not created from dust when God created "man," "man" does not refer to spirit. John 4:24 24 God is spirit... Hosea 11:9 9 For I am God, and not man... Response: What IS spirit is not man; therefore, what IS man is not spirit.  Jesus said a spirit does not have flesh and bone (Luke 24:39).  Meaning, a spirit is not something physical.  It is not flesh and cannot be touched, for Jesus was showing his disciples in Luke 24:39 that he had risen from the dead.  And to prove it to them, he had them touch him to show that since he could be touched, he was not spirit.  Therefore, what is spirit is not man (flesh/physical). If D&C says "man IS spirit," then it's saying that "man" (flesh) is spirit (that which is not flesh).  The Bible does not say "man" IS spirit.  It speaks of "the spirit OF a man" (Prov. 20:27). Isaiah 31:3 3 ...Egyptians are men and not God; their horses are flesh and not spirit." Response: "Man" is not God.  "Flesh" is not spirit.  God IS spirit; God is NOT man.  So if "man" was created from dust, then "man" refers to flesh and not spirit.  Therefore it is impossible to conclude from the Bible that "man" IS spirit.  Man/flesh is not God/spirit. D&C 131:7,8 7 All spirit is matter... 8 We cannot see it... Response: Matter (American Heritage Dictionary): "Something that occupies space, has weight, and can be perceived by one or more senses; the substance of which a physical body is constituted.  An entity displaying gravitation and inertia when at rest as well as when in motion."  Reader's Digest Encyclopedia Dictionary says matter is "perceived by the senses, as distinguished from that which is...spiritual."  If spirit is matter, then our spirit is physical. According to D&C, our spirit occupies space, has weight and can be either heard, felt, tasted or touched, but it cannot be seen. But Jesus had his disciples touch him to prove he was not spirit but was flesh (Luke 24:39).  That means we cannot touch spirit. However, we can either smell, hear or taste spirit, since matter is "perceived by the senses." Matter is "the substance of which a physical body is constituted." Therefore, according to D&C, our spirit is a physical substance inside our physical body and is bound by gravity and inertia.  So both body and spirit are physical.  Both are detected by the senses.  Both are solid objects.  If "man IS spirit," then what is flesh is also spirit. And that makes no sense. D&C 129:1,2 1 There are two kinds of beings in heaven, namely: Angels, who are resurrected personages, having bodies of flesh and bones - 2 For instance, Jesus said, Handle me and see, for a spirit hath not  flesh and bones, as ye see me have. Response:  D&C says that angels, because they have flesh and bones, are not spirits, "for a spirit hath not flesh and bones." And D&C 129:2 says Jesus could be touched; therefore he was not spirit. A spirit does not have flesh. And if angels are resurrected beings, having flesh and bones, then they are not spirits. So according to D&C, man IS spirit while angels are not. D&C 130:22 22 …the Holy Ghost has not a body of flesh and bones, but is a personage of Spirit. Response: The Holy Spirit does not have a body of flesh because he is Spirit. So if something is spirit, it does not have flesh and bones. And yet man, who is flesh, "is" spirit. It says because the Holy Spirit IS spirit he cannot have flesh.  But man who IS spirit is also flesh.  If the Holy Spirit "IS" spirit and NOT flesh, then what IS spirit cannot be flesh, according to even their own books. And so we see a contradiction. And what does the Bible say about angels? Are they spirits or resurrected beings with flesh? Hebrews 1:13,14 13 But to which of the angels said he at any time, Sit on my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool? 14 Are they not all ministering spirits, sent forth to minister for them who shall be heirs of salvation? Response: If we take out the adjective "ministering," it would say about angels: "Are they not all spirits, sent forth to minister for them who shall be heirs of salvation?" Angels are spirits, according to the Bible. That would mean they do not have bodies of flesh and bone.  D&C 129, however, says that angels have bodies of flesh and bone.  So they cannot be spirit.  But then D&C 76:88 says (see index, pg. 167 under "SPIRIT") angels ARE spirit.  One says angels are NOT spirit, the other says they ARE.  If what D&C says is compatible with the Bible (and they claim it is), then we have to conclude that because angels ARE spirits, they DON'T  have bodies of flesh and bone, but DO have bodies of flesh and bone, since they are resurrected beings who are NOT spirits.  It is confusing and makes absolutely no sense. If what IS spirit could mean having a body of flesh, then the Holy Spirit could also have a body of flesh, even though he IS spirit.  We either believe D&C or we believe the Bible. But clearly we cannot believe both.  But how can we believe D&C when it contradicts not only the Bible but also itself? To sum this up: The Bible teaches that God is spirit and is not a man. "Man" refers to flesh.  So "man" is not spirit.  Spirit is not man. Angels are spirit.  Spirits do not have flesh and bone; therefore, angels are spirit who do not have flesh and bone.  Simple. D&C teaches that man IS spirit; a spirit does NOT have flesh and bones; angels ARE spirit that have NO flesh and bones; angels are NOT spirit because they DO have flesh and bone; spirit is matter (and so can be heard, smelt or tasted, but not seen or felt), and the Holy Spirit IS spirit and so does NOT have flesh and bone.  And what IS spirit DOES have flesh and bone. Do we see harmony between the Bible and D&C?  Do we even see harmony within D&C itself?  D&C is confusing and contradictory.  There can be no variation in doctrine, interpretation or what God literally said.  James 1:17 says, there is "no variation" in God.  So as D&C 3:3 says, it is NOT the work of God that is frustrated but the work of men. D&C 88:27,28 27 For notwithstanding they die, they also shall rise again, a spiritual body. 28 They who are of a celestial spirit shall receive the same body which was a natural body; even ye shall receive your bodies, and your glory shall be that glory by which your bodies are quickened. Response: D&C says the physical body of flesh and bones, when it is raised, becomes the spiritual body. And the Bible agrees with this.  However, if angels are resurrected beings, as D&C says (and the Bible does not), that means at one time angels had natural bodies of flesh and bone - earthly bodies. Genesis 2:7 and 1 Corinthians 15:47 say the body of flesh, which is "man,"  "was of the dust of the earth." If angels have resurrected bodies, they were first men (flesh) who lived on earth who died and then were raised. For D&C 88 says we receive the same body when raised that was a natural body on earth. Therefore, all angels were men who at one time had natural bodies that died, then were raised to life. When did they have natural bodies? When and why did they die? Where did they live before they died, since they were human? Why doesn’t the Bible mention it, since this all had to happen after God created the earth in Genesis 1 (for our bodies are from dust of the ground)? If what D&C says is true, then there were no angels in heaven with God until after God created the earth. For they would first have to have a natural body of dust from the ground, then die, then be raised with a resurrected body. According to the Bible, angels do not have resurrected bodies of flesh because Hebrews 1:14 clearly says angels are spirits. And what IS spirit does not have flesh and bones.  So D&C goes against the Bible and does not even agree with itself.       2. GOSPEL GIVEN THROUGH ANGELS   (Back to Top) D&C 20:9,10,11 9 …the Book of Mormon; 10 Which was given by inspiration and is confirmed to others by the ministering of angels, and is declared unto the world by them – 11 Proving to the world that the holy scriptures are true… D&C 27:16 16 …the gospel of peace, which I have sent mine angels to commit unto you; D&C 27:5 5 ...Moroni, whom I have sent unto you to reveal the Book of Mormon, containing the fullness of my everlasting gospel... D&C 128:20 20 Moroni, an angel from heaven, declaring the fulfillment of the prophets – the book to be revealed. Response: It says the gospel was given through angels. And this gospel that was given by angels was more teaching other than what is in the Bible.  But let’s compare that with the Bible. Acts 7:53 53 …you who have received the law put into effect by angelsGalatians 3:19 19 The law was put into effect through angels by a mediator. Response: In Acts 10:22 it says an angel told Cornelius to send for Peter to preach the gospel to him and his household. The angel did not preach the gospel to Cornelius. Peter did.  D&C says the gospel was announced unto men by angels. But in the Bible the gospel was announced by Jesus. In Revelation 14:6 it says an angel was flying in the heavens and had the everlasting gospel to proclaim to "every nation, tribe, language and people."  First of all, the angel did not introduce the gospel or any new teachings.  Second, the angel did not go to any one continent or any one person.  He "said in a loud voice" to the whole world.  The book of Hebrews in the Bible compares the old covenant spoken by angels with the new covenant given through Jesus. Hebrews 2:2,3 2 For if the message spoken by angels was binding… 3 how shall we escape if we ignore such a great salvation? This salvation, which was first announced by the Lord, was confirmed to us by those who heard him. Response: The "message spoken by angels" was the law. Meaning, the law was first announced by angels. The gospel was first announced by Jesus Christ. Then it was confirmed by the apostles. The law was given through angels. The new covenant was given through God’s Son. Hebrews 1-2 explains that because Jesus is greater than angels, the covenant put into effect through him is greater than the covenant put into effect by angels. So God did not give Joseph Smith the gospel through angels because the new covenant was given through the Son, Jesus Christ. The law was given through angels. An angel of God could not have given Joseph Smith any new teachings.  It is unbiblical.  In fact, Galatians 1:8 says if "an angel from heaven should preach a gospel other than the one we preached to you, let him be eternally condemned!"  The angel in Revelation 14:6 did not do that.  And since angels gave Joseph Smith a gospel other than the one the apostles preached, then he, and the angel he claims gave it to him, are eternally condemned, according to the Bible.       3. JOSEPH SMITH GREATER THAN JESUS     (Back to Top) D&C 135:3 3 Joseph Smith, the Prophet and Seer of the Lord, has done more, save Jesus only, for the salvation of men in this world, than any other man that ever lived in it." He...has sealed his mission and his works with his own blood. D&C 136:39 39 (his death) was needful that he should seal his testimony with his blood, that he might be honored... D&C 135:1 1 To seal the testimony of this book and the Book of Mormon, we announce the martyrdom of Joseph Smith the Prophet... Response: According to D&C, Joseph Smith has done the greatest work for man’s salvation – other than Jesus. Paul said in 1 Corinthians 3:21, "So then, no more boasting about men!"  And yet D&C 135:3 boasts in Joseph Smith.  Joseph Smith "sealed" his testimony and the testimony of the Book of Mormon with his shed blood. The Bible says, "a will is in force only when somebody has died" (Heb. 9:17). This refers to a covenant. Hebrews 9:18,19,20 18 This is why even the first covenant was not put into effect without blood. 19 When Moses had proclaimed every commandment of the law to all the people, he took the blood... 20 He said, 'This is the blood of the covenant, which God has commanded you to keep.' Response: So after Moses gave the people God's commandments, blood "sealed" the covenant. And Hebrews 9:12,15 says Jesus' blood is the new covenant. The first and second covenants were put into effect first by giving God's commandments, then by shed blood. Jesus gave us God's commandments (John 15:12), then he shed his blood to seal the covenant (Mark 14:24). Jesus bought the church with his blood (Acts 20:28). And his signature was his blood that sealed the testimony (the deed; the covenant). But D&C is saying Joseph Smith sealed the testimony (and therefore a new covenant) with his own blood. Exodus 25:22 calls the ark, "the ark of the Testimony." But Numbers 10:33 calls the ark, "the ark of the covenant." The Ten Commandments were God's Testimony, and they were covenant stipulations. So testimony = covenant.  If Joseph Smith received the testimony supposedly from God - the Book of Mormon - then shed his blood to seal that testimony, that means Joseph Smith gave us a new covenant other than the one Jesus gave and sealed with his blood. Meaning, Joseph Smith did away with the covenant of Jesus and replaced it with his own. For what other prophet or apostle received God's testimony then "sealed" it with his own blood? Sealing it is no different than signing it, like a will or covenant. Joseph Smith signed the testimony (sealed the covenant) with his blood. Jesus' apostles died and shed their blood. However, they never gave "new" commandments and teachings other than what Jesus gave and are found in the NT. And they never claimed to "seal" their teachings and revelations from God by their blood.  But Joseph Smith gave more teachings other than what is in the Bible, then sealed his new teachings with his blood. Therefore, Joseph Smith has put into effect a new covenant after Jesus, which would make Jesus' covenant obsolete. And by doing so, Joseph Smith is claiming his covenant is better than the covenant Jesus put into effect and sealed with his own blood.       4. FULLNESS OF GOSPEL GIVEN BY JOSEPH SMITH   (Back to Top) D&C 27:5 5 ...Moroni, whom I have sent unto you to reveal the Book of Mormon, containing the fulness of my everlasting gospel... D&C 35:17 17 And I have sent forth the fulness of my gospel by the hand of my servant Joseph... D&C 21:2-5 2 Being inspired of the Holy Ghost to lay the foundation thereof, and to build it up unto the most holy faith. 3 Which church was organized and established in the year of your Lord eighteen hundred and thirty, in the fourth month, and on the sixth day of the month which is called April. 4 Wherefore, meaning the church, thou shalt give heed unto all his words and commandments which he shall give unto you as he receiveth them, walking in all holiness before me; 5 For his word ye shall receive, as if from mine own mouth, in all patience and faith. Response: The church was given the full gospel through Joseph Smith. He laid the foundation of this new church, which was established in the year 1830.  Problem 1) In Colossians 1:25 Paul said God commissioned him, Paul, to give us "the word of God in its fullness" (completeness). Titus 1:3 3 ...and at his appointed season he brought his word to light by the preaching entrusted to me by the command of God our Savior... Response: Very clearly, Paul gave us the fullness of the gospel. Problem 2) If the Book of Mormon contains the "fullness" of the gospel, why did God (or how could God) give any more of his word? "Fullness" simply means that it is complete, no room for any more. It's full. And yet after the Book of Mormon, God kept giving more of his commandments and teachings in the D&C. That makes the statement in D&C 27:5 untrue. Problem 3) In D&C 21:2-5 it says Joseph Smith was inspired by the Holy Spirit to lay the foundation of the church. Again this negates what Jesus did, for he already laid the foundation for his church in the Bible. 1 Corinthians 3:11 11 For no one can lay any foundation other than the one already laid, which is Jesus Christ. Response: "No one" (including Joseph Smith) could lay another foundation.  The foundation was already laid with Jesus almost 2,000 years ago. D&C 21:4 says Joseph Smith would give new commandments and words.  And in doing so he would lay a new foundation.  So this completely negates what Jesus did.  If the BofM (Book of Mormon) is the fullness of the gospel, then it even negates the Bible. For that statement means the BofM in itself is containing the full gospel. So all we need to know of the gospel is in the BofM. It is full/complete in itself regarding Jesus' gospel. It does not say it "completes" the Bible.  It says it, in itself, contains the fullnessof the gospel.  That means we can throw away the Bible. And, according to D&C 21:2-5, Jesus started his church April 6, 1830. What church did Jesus start 2,000 years ago?  What happened to that church, since a different one was started in 1830? So all of this means that Joseph Smith completely did away with the Bible, Jesus' sacrifice, covenant, and church by bringing forth his own book of God's commandments, his own sacrifice and blood that sealed a new covenant, starting his own church, and laying a new foundation. That would make Joseph Smith greater than the Son of God.       5. ONE GOD BUT ALSO MANY GODS   (Back to Top) Joseph Smith - History 1:17 17 When the light rested upon me I saw two Personages, whose brightness and glory defy all description, standing above me in the air. One of them spake unto me, calling me by name and said, pointing to the other - This is My Beloved Son. Hear Him! Response: According to Joseph Smith, he saw the Father and the Son, and they are two separate beings. 1 Nephi 13:41 41 ...for there is one God... 2 Nephi 31:21 21 ...this is the doctrine of Christ, and the only and true doctrine of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost, which is the one God, without end. Mormon 7:7 7 ...unto the Father, and unto the Son, and unto the Holy Ghost, which are one God... Response: They (Father, Son and Holy Spirit together) = one God.  So it denies that they are many "Gods" by saying Father, Son and Holy Spirit is one God. Alma 11:28,29 28 Now Zeezrom said: Is there more than one God? 29 And he answered, No. Abraham 4:26 26 And the Gods took counsel among themselves and said: Let us go down and form man in our image, after our likeness... Response: Mormon 7 and Alma 11 say the Father, Son and Holy Spirit together are one God.  Is there MORE than one God?  NO.  And yet  many Gods made us.  Contradiction.  The Bible never says "Gods" in reference to the only God.  In fact, Isaiah 45:5 says, "I am the LORD, and there is no other; apart from me there is no God."  Apart from Jehovah (the LORD) there is no Elohim (God).  There is one God, not many Gods.  In Isaiah 45:21 Jehovah says, "And there is no God apart from me."  One God. Moses 2:26,27 26 And I, God, said unto mine Only Begotten, which was with me from the beginning: Let us make man in our image... 27 And I, God, created in mine own image, in the image of mine Only Begotten created I him... Response: In verses 3-11 "I, God" created the heavens and the earth alone.  It wasn't until verses 26 and 27 that "I,God" included the Son, when he formed man.  So "I,God" excludes the Son from being God. Moses 3:4,18 4 ...the day that I, the Lord God, made the heaven and the earth... 18 And I, the Lord God, said unto mine Only Begotten, that it was not good for man to be alone; wherefore, I will make an help meet for him. Response: "I,God" is not including the Son.  In Moses 2:26,27 "mine Only Begotten" was not included with "I,God," for he spoke of the Son apart from "I,God."  And in verse 18 "I, the Lord God" again excludes the Son.  So verse 4 means God the Father created the heaven and earth alone apart from the Son. Moses 3:7 7 And I, the Lord God, formed man from the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life... Response: Because "the Lord God" refers to the Father apart from the Son, the Father by himself formed man from the dust of the ground.  However, Genesis 2:7 (where Moses 3:7 is taken from) says it was "the LORD God" (Jehovah) who formed man from the dust of the ground.  In Moses 3:18 "The Lord God" (the Father apart from the Son) said that it was not good for man to be alone.  But Genesis 2:18 it was Jehovah (whom LDS say is the Son) who said, "It is not good for the man to be alone." According to Moses, the Father created apart from the Son, while Genesis says it was Jehovah (the Son, according to LDS).   Jesus is "the Only Begotten of the Father" (Moses 5:7).  And because "I, God" has "mine Only Begotten," "God" in Moses does NOT refer to Jesus but ONLY to the Father of Jesus.  And in Moses 1:6 it was the Father of Jesus who said, "but there is NO GOD beside ME."  That means Jesus is not included as God with the Father.  The Father is God by himself.  If the Father is a separate being and is called "God" apart from the Son, then each individual of the Godhead would be a God apart from the others - and therefore would be "God" on his own.  The Father is.  Why not the Son?  Why not the Spirit?  That would make them "Gods."  And yet Mormon 7:7 say the Father, Son and Holy Spirit together are one God. Abraham 4:3 3 And they (the Gods) said: Let there be light... Moses 2:3 3  And I, God, said: Let there be light... Abraham 2:5 5 And the Gods called the light day... Moses 2:5 5 And I, God, called the light day... Abraham 4:26 26  And the Gods took counsel among themselves... Response: "I,God" in Moses 2 refers to the Father  apart from the Son.  But in Abraham "the Gods" refers to more than one God.  Moses says one God said, "Let there be light," while Abraham says "the Gods" said "Let there be light."  Moses 2 says it was the Father alone who called the light day, while Abraham says many Gods called the light day.  Moses 2 excludes the Son from saying "Let there be light," but Abraham includes the Son in saying "Let there be light."  So it's clearly a contradiction.  LDS are very confused over who they believe God is. Journal of Discourses, Vol.6, pg. 3 (Joseph Smith speaking) God himself was once as we are now, and is an exalted Man, and sits enthroned in yonder heavens.. if you were to see him today, you would see him like a man in form. Teachings of the Prophet Joseph Smith, p.345 God himself was once as we are now and is an exhalted man....We have imagined and supposed that God was God from all eternity. I will refute that idea... Response: It was Joseph Smith himself, who supposedly received direct revelation from God, who said he refuted the idea that God was God from all eternity. D&C 76:4 4 From eternity to eternity he is the same... Moses 1:3 3 And God spake unto Moses, saying: Behold, I am the Lord God Almighty, and Endless is my name; for I am without beginning of days or end of years; and is that not endless? Moses 6:67 67 ...him who was without beginning of days or end of years, from all eternity to all eternity. Response: LDS books say God was always God from all eternity.  From eternity to eternity "he is the same." As God always was, he always will be.  And yet Joseph Smith didn't believe it.  If God is the same "from eternity," then what he is now he was then.  However, LDS do not believe that. Malachi 3:6 6 I, the LORD, do not change. Hebrews 13:8 8 Jesus Christ is the same yesterday and today and forever. Response:  Mormons believe Jesus is Jehovah, and Jehovah said he does not change.  Jesus Christ is the same yesterday, today and forever.  That means what he is now, he was then.  He does not change.  If he is God now - and he is - then he was God then. He was always God.  If he does not change, then he was God from all eternity. Psalm 90:2 2 Before the mountains were born or you brought forth the earth and the world, from everlasting to everlasting you are God. Response: What God was from all eternity, he will be for all eternity - the only God.  LDS do not believe Jesus was always God.  They don't believe the Father was always God.  And yet their books don't agree with church leaders - or Joseph Smith. Or should I say, their church leaders and Joseph Smith do not agree with LDS books.  In fact, LDS books do not agree with LDS books.     6. JESUS IS THE FATHER, SON AND HOLY SPIRIT   (Back to Top) Moroni 4:3 3 O God, the Eternal Father, we ask thee in the name of thy Son, Jesus Christ... 1 Nephi 13:40 40 ...that the Lamb of God is the Son of the Eternal Father... Alma 11:38,39 38 Now Zeezrom saith again unto him: Is the Son of God the very Eternal Father? 39 And Amulek said unto him: Yea, he is the very Eternal Father of heaven and earth... Response: Jesus is the Son of "the" Eternal Father.  But  Jesus is "the" Eternal Father. Mosiah 15:4 4 And they are one God, yea, the very Eternal Father of heaven and of earth. Response: Jesus is the Son of the Eternal Father of heaven and earth. And yet Jesus is the Eternal Father of heaven and earth.  The Eternal Father is separate from the Son but also includes the Son.  Inconsistent. D&C 93:21,23,26 21 I was in the beginning with the Father, and I am the Firstborn... 23 Ye were also in the beginning with the Father; that which is Spirit, even the Spirit of truth.. 26 I am the Spirit of truth... Response: Jesus was "with the Father; that which is Spirit, even the (not 'a') Spirit of truth." So the Father is "the Spirit of truth." But the one who was with the Father said, "I am the Spirit of truth." The Spirit of truth refers to Jesus. When it says "the Father; that which is Spirit, even the Spirit of truth," it is saying that the Father "is Spirit, even the Spirit of truth." And yet Jesus said he, Jesus, was the Spirit of truth. John 14:16,17,26 in the Bible says the "Counselor (is) the Spirit of truth"; but the Counselor is "the Holy Spirit." The Spirit of truth is the Holy Spirit. So according to this, the Father is the Spirit of truth and the Son is the Spirit of truth, making both the Father and the Son the Holy Spirit. It also means the Father "is Spirit." He does not have a body of flesh, for the Holy Spirit does not have a body of flesh. And yet Jesus and the Father have bodies of flesh. However, they are the Spirit of truth (Holy Spirit) who does not have a body of flesh. Could there be more than ONE Spirit of truth?  "The Spirit of truth...goes out from the Father" (John 15:26).  The spirit of truth comes from God.  Ephesians 2:18; 4:4; 1 Corinthians 12:13 say there is only ONE Spirit of God.  Jesus said, "Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into truth" (John 16:13 - KJV).  "He" is "the" Spirit of truth, who is the Holy Spirit, according to the Bible.  D&C and the Book of Mormon say the spirit of truth is the Father and the Son.  But the Bible says the spirit of truth is the Holy Spirit alone.  The problem is that LDS say the Father, Son and Spirit are three separate beings but then say the Father is the Spirit of truth and the Son is the Spirit of truth (whom the Bible says is the Holy Spirit).  If the Father and Son are the Spirit of truth, then, according to the Bible, that would make them the Holy Spirit.  LDS books go against LDS teaching.  So their books are not in agreement with the Bible nor themselves. Alma 22:9,10 9 And the king said: Is God that Great Spirit that brought our fathers out of the land of Jerusalem? 10 And Aaron said unto him: Yea, he is that Great Spirit... D&C 130:22 22 The Father has a body of flesh and bones as tangible as man's; the Son also; but the Holy Ghost has not a body of flesh and bones, but is a personage of Spirit. Luke 24:39 39 ...for a spirit hath not flesh and bone... Response: God is the Great Spirit.  Therefore, God is spirit.  A spirit does NOT have flesh and bone. The Father and Son both have bodies of flesh and bone.  The Holy Spirit does not have flesh and bone for he is Spirit. "God" includes the Father, Son AND Holy Spirit (Mormon 7:7).  So the Father, Son and Holy Spirit are the one God who is the Great Spirit. And since God is spirit, God (Father, Son, Holy Spirit) does NOT have flesh and bone, for a spirit does not have flesh and bone.   D&C 93 agrees that the Father and the Son are "the" spirit of truth.  Again, it says they are spirit.  And spirit does not have flesh and bone.  Why doesn't the Holy Spirit have flesh, according to D&C?  Because he IS spirit.  But the Father and Son who are spirit DO have bodies of flesh.  Contradiction. D&C 38:1,3 1 Thus saith the Lord your God, even Jesus Christ, the Great I AM, Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end, the same which looked upon the wide expanse of eternity, and all the seraphic hosts of heaven, before the world was made; 3 I am the same which spake, and the world was made, and all things came by me. Response: Jesus is the God who "spake" and the world was made. Moses 2:1,5 1 I am the Beginning and the End, the Almighty God; by mine Only Begotten I created these things; yea, in the beginning I created the heaven, and the earth upon which thou standest. 5 ...and it was done as I spake... Response: Jesus is the beginning and the end who spoke and the world was created. And the Father is the beginning and the end who spoke and the world was created. So both of them are the beginning and the end who spoke and created the world together. Isaiah 44:24 24 I am the LORD, who has made all things, who alone stretched out the heavens, who spread out the earth by myself... Response: D&C says both the Father and the Son, who are two separate beings, spoke and created the world together. But the Bible says the "LORD" (Jehovah) created "alone...by myself." The book of Abraham says "Gods" created; but other places in Mormon books say one God created. So did "they" together create "by myself"? Moses 1:6 6 ...and mine Only Begotten is and shall be the Savior, for he is full of grace and truth; but there is no God beside me, and all things are present with me, for I know them all. Response: God speaks of his "Only Begotten" – Jesus. Then God says, "but there is no God beside me." This clearly says there is no God other than the Father. And in saying this, the Father is claiming that the Son is not God, for he first mentions the Son, then he says he, the Father, is the only God - "but...NO God beside me" (Jesus' Father). D&C 20:28 28 Which Father, Son and Holy Ghost are one God, infinite and eternal, without end. Amen. Response: When the "one God" said "there is no God beside me," was he referring to the Father, Son and Spirit being the "one God"? Or was it the Father by himself who said "there is no God beside me"? It had to have been the Father apart from the Son because first he said, "and mine Only Begotten is and shall be the Savior, for he is full of grace and truth"; then he said, "but there is no God beside me." The Father who first spoke of his Son, the Only Begotten, apart from himself, said, "but there is no God beside me." He was denying that the Son or the Holy Spirit were God. "Me" is singular. There is no God but "me," the Father. But Abraham repeatedly says "the Gods said among themselves" (5:2); the "Gods" said, "let us go down and form man in our image" (4:26); "And the Gods said: We will bless them" (4:28). There "is no God beside me," the Father said after he spoke of his Only Begotten. But in Abraham there is more than one God who created man - "Gods." This denies D&C 20:28 that says the Father, Son and Spirit together are "one God." It denies Isaiah that says Jehovah created "alone…by myself." Now, according to Abraham, they are many "Gods" who created. The one God who created us is actually many Gods. They created together, alone, "by myself." The Father and Son together are "one God, yea, the very Eternal Father of heaven and of earth" (Mosiah 15:4). So one book separates them; another book makes them one person. One book says "they" are "Gods," while another book says "they" are "one God." Another says there is no God but the Father; another says Jesus is the Father and the Son; another says the Father is the only God, denying that the Son is God. Again we not only see contradiction and confusion in D&C and the BofM, but they are not in harmony with the Bible. Malachi 2:10 10 Have we not all one Father?  Did not one God create us? Response: We have ONE Father and ONE God who created us, not many Gods and Fathers.  Deuteronomy 32:6 says of Jehovah (whom D&C says is Jesus the Son): "Is he not your Father, your Creator, who made you and formed you?" This agrees with Malachi:  We have ONE Father and ONE God who made us.  And it agrees with Isaiah: Jehovah, the ONE God, created "alone...by myself." But these verses in the Bible do NOT agree with what D&C and the BofM teach: that there is MORE than one God who created, and MORE than one Father in heaven.  LDS teach that Jehovah is one Father while God the Father is another Father.  But the OT never teaches that Jehovah has a Father.  The Bible never says we have two heavenly Fathers. In fact, it specifically says the opposite.  Jesus said, "you only have ONE Father, and he is in heaven" (Matt. 23:9).  We have ONE heavenly Father, not two.  Jesus' Father is our Father (John 20:17).  ONE heavenly Father.  If LDS believe we have two, they would have to back it up in the Bible.  But they can't, since Jesus himself testified we have ONE Father in heaven.  ONE Father; ONE God. Moses 2:26,27 26 And I, God, said unto mine Only Begotten, which was with me from the beginning: Let us make man in our image, after our likeness; and it was so. 27 And I, God, created man in mine own image, in the image of mine Only Begotten created I him... Response: The Father created man in his, the Father’s own image. But it was in the image of his Son. And we were created in the image of both the Father and the Son. Moses 6:9 9 In the image of his own body, male and female, created he him... Response: The image of God is a physical body, since D&C says the Father and Son have bodies of flesh and bone. So whether we were created in the Father’s image or the Son’s image, that image was flesh. But the Father created by himself. He also created with the Son. And the Father and the Son are the Spirit of truth, who is the Holy Spirit who does not have a body of flesh. Abraham 4:26 26 And the Gods took counsel among themselves and said: Let us go down and form man in our image, after our likeness... Response: The Father, who created by himself, made man in his own image and in the image of his Son. But the Son also created, for both the Father and the Son spoke to create. And Abraham says "Gods" created, not just one. One place says there is "one God"; another place says there are many "Gods." We are told there is no God but the Father; then we are told the Father, Son and Holy Spirit are the "one God." Then we are told they are many "Gods." God created man in the image of both the Father and the Son. But when man was created, the Son did not have a body of flesh. The Son "became flesh" (John 1:14). So how could man be created in the image of both the Father and the Son (speaking of the body) when the Father had a body of flesh and the Son did not? Ether 3:14-16 14 Behold, I am he who was prepared from the foundation of the world to redeem my people. Behold, I am Jesus Christ. I am the Father and the Son. In me shall all mankind have life, and that eternally, even they who shall believe on my name; and they shall become my sons and my daughters. 15 And never have I showed myself unto man whom I have created, for never has man believed in me as thou hast. Seest thou that ye are created after mine own image? Yea, even all men were created in the beginning after mine own image. 16 Behold, this body, which ye now behold, is the body of my spirit; and man have I created after the body of my spirit; and even as I appear unto thee to be in the spirit will I appear unto my people in the flesh. Response: Jesus said we are created in his image - spirit. For Jesus said "and man have I created after the body of my spirit, and even as I appear unto thee to be in the spirit will I appear unto my people in the flesh." Jesus at that time was spirit but would appear in the flesh.  A spirit does not have flesh (Luke 24:39). This means that man was not created in God's image in the flesh - for God is claiming he was not yet in the flesh but was spirit.  Man was created in the image of God's spirit body, not flesh, according to these verses. And it says when God created man, God did not have a body of flesh. But "man" refers to our flesh, not our spirit, according to the Bible. Ether 3:17 confirms that "Jesus showed himself unto this man in the spirit." So how were we created in the image of both the Father and the Son bodily when the Father had a body of flesh and the Son did not? Ether 3:15 says "all men were created in the beginning after mine (God's) own image." Ether is talking about "the body of (Christ's) spirit." So "men" (man) are created in the image of Christ's spirit, not his flesh, for he said he did not yet have flesh but would come in the flesh. And yet we were created in the image of the Father’s body of flesh and bone. Mosiah 7:27 27 And because he said unto them that Christ was the God, the Father of all things, and said that he should take upon him the image of man, and it should be the image after which man was created in the beginning; or in other words, he said that man was created after the image of God, and that God should come down among the children of men, and take upon him flesh and blood, and go forth upon the face of the earth. Response: Jesus is "the" God, "the" Father of all things. After Jesus rose from the dead, he told Mary to tell his disciples he was returning "to my Father and your Father" (John 20:17).  Jesus' Father is our Father.  And we only have ONE God and Father in heaven, according to the Bible (Malachi 2:10). That would make Jesus his own Father and God, which LDS say they do not believe.  LDS books say one thing while LDS teach another.  And "the" God and Father, whom Mosiah 7 says is Jesus, would take upon himself the image of man, being flesh and blood.  That image is after which man was originally created in the beginning. The image "man" (that which is flesh) was created in the beginning was "after the image of God."  However, God was now going to become flesh in our image. So in who's image were we created in the beginning? If we were already created in God's image in the flesh,  why was he now going to be in our image in the flesh? But there is a conflict over God's image. One says it is flesh, the other says it is spirit. God was going to come down in the flesh to take upon himself the image of man - flesh - the image in which we were created that was in God's image "in the beginning." But "in the beginning" we were created after the body of Jesus' spirit. And this also says Jesus is both the Father and the Son. He is "the" Father of all things. He is "the" God. And if "the" God (Father, Son and Spirit - the "one God") didn't have flesh until Christ became flesh, then the Father does not have a body of flesh. And yet he does. D&C 130:22 22 The Father has a body of flesh and bones as tangible as man's; the Son also; but the Holy Ghost has not a body of flesh and bones, but is a personage of Spirit. Response:  If we were created in the image of both the Father and the Son, being made in their likeness, one had a body and the other didn't. And yet we were created in the Son's image who did not have a body of flesh, and the Father's image, who supposedly does have a body of flesh. But Jesus is both the Father and the Son. The Father and the Son together are "the Eternal Father."  Does that Eternal Father (Father and Son together) have a body of flesh?  Another book has Jesus admitting he is the (not "a") Spirit of truth, which John 14 says is the Holy Spirit. But D&C 130:22 says the Holy Spirit does not have flesh. Jesus is the Father who has flesh. Jesus is the Son who did not have flesh when man was created but does now. Jesus is the Holy Spirit who does not have a body of flesh. It says we were created in the image of Christ, the Father's Only Begotten. But Jesus didn't have a body of flesh in the beginning when we were created. And yet Jesus is both the Father of all things and the Son. But they are supposed to be two separate beings. And then Abraham calls them "Gods." However, "God" is the Father, Son and Spirit.  God is not a God of confusion, and yet Mormon books are very confusing. D&C 20:21 21 Wherefore, the Almighty God gave his Only Begotten Son, as it is written in those scriptures which have been given of him. Moses 1:3,6 3 And God spake unto Moses, saying: Behold, I am the Lord God Almighty, and Endless is my name; for I am without beginning of days or end of years; and is not this endless? 6 And I have a work for thee, Moses, my son; and thou art in the similitude of mine Only Begotten; and mine Only Begotten is and shall be the Savior, for he is full of grace and truth; but there is no God beside me... Response: The Lord God Almighty (Almighty God) is the Father of "mine Only Begotten" (referring to Jesus). And there is no God other than the Lord God Almighty. The name of the only God, the Lord God Almighty, is "Endless." D&C 19:1,4,10,24 1 I AM Alpha and Omega, Christ the Lord; yea, even I am he, the beginning and the end, the Redeemer of the world. 4 And surely every man must repent or suffer, for I, God, am endless. 10 For, behold, the mystery of godliness, how great is it! For, behold, I am endless, and the punishment which is given from my hand is endless punishment, for Endless is my name. 24 I am Jesus Christ; I came by the will of the Father, and I do his will. Response: The Father's name is Endless. Jesus' name is Endless. The God whose name is "Endless" has a Son, "mine Only Begotten." But the God whose name is "Endless" is the Son. So if Joseph Smith saw two Personages, one being the Father and the other being the Son, which one was named "Endless"?  And the God whose name is "Endless" said, "there is no God beside me." There is no God other than the Father (apart from the Son) whose name is Endless. And yet Jesus is "the" God whose name is Endless.  They are separate beings and separate Gods; and yet they are one and the same being and the same God. Moses 2:1 1 And it came to pass that the Lord spake unto Moses, saying: Behold, I reveal unto you concerning this heaven, and this earth; write the words which I speak. I am the Beginning and the End, the Almighty God; by mine Only Begotten I created these things; yea, in the beginning I created the heaven, and the earth upon which thou standest. Response:  The Almighty God has "mine Only Begotten." He is the beginning and the end. Abraham 1:15,16 15 And as they lifted up their hands upon me, that they might offer me up and take away my life, behold, I lifted up my voice unto the Lord my God, and the Lord hearkened and heard, and he filled me with the vision of the Almighty, and the angel of his presence stood by me, and immediately unloosed my bands; 16 And his voice was unto me: Abraham, Abraham, behold, my name is Jehovah... Response: The name of the Almighty God is Jehovah. And Moses 2 says the Almighty has a Son, his Only Begotten. Again we see that LDS books do not agree with LDS teaching.  It is not a matter of interpretation.  It is a matter of believing what one reads.  If someone were to say Jesus is NOT the Son of God, we would prove them wrong by quoting the Bible that says Jesus IS the Son of God.  It is not a matter of interpretation but of belief.  It's the same with LDS books.  If their books say the Almighty God HAS a Son but then says the Son IS the Almighty God, it's not an interpretation.  We base our belief on what is written.  And what is written in LDS books is inconsistent. D&C 109:4,22,42,77 4 And now we ask thee, Holy Father, in the name of Jesus Christ, the Son of thy bosom... 22 And we ask thee, Holy Father... 34 O Jehovah, have mercy upon this people... 42 But deliver thou, O Jehovah, we beseech thee... 77 O Lord God Almighty, hear us in these our petitions... Response: D&C 109 is a prayer of dedication for the temple. It is speaking to the Holy Father, the Lord God Almighty, who is Jehovah. And the name of the Son of the Holy Father, the Lord God Almighty (Jehovah) is Jesus Christ. D&C 110:3,4 3 ...his voice was as the sound of the rushing of great waters, even the voice of Jehovah, saying: 4 I am the first and the last; I am he who liveth, I am he who was slain; I am your advocate with the Father. Response: He heard the voice of Jehovah, and it was Jesus. Jesus is Jehovah. So in D&C 109 when they prayed to the Holy Father, Jehovah, the Lord God Almighty whose Son is Jesus Christ, they were actually praying to the Son Jesus. One says Jehovah is the Holy Father, the Lord God Almighty whose Son is Jesus. The other says Jehovah is the Son Jesus.  LDS believe Jehovah is Jesus the Son and that Elohim ("God") is the Father of Jehovah.  However, the Bible never says Elohim is the Father of Jehovah.  In fact, Isaiah 45:5 says, "I am the LORD, and there is no other; apart from me there is no God."  In Hebrew, "LORD" is YHWH (Jehovah) and "God" is Elohim.  So Jehovah said apart from him, Jehovah, "there is no Elohim."  Genesis 2:7,15,18,19 say "the LORD God" - i.e., Jehovah Elohim, referring to one person.  Exodus 3:18; 5:3 says, "the LORD our God" (Jehovah our Elohim). Jesus said his Father is our Father (John 20:17).  Our Father is Jehovah (Deut. 32:6).  Therefore, Jesus' Father is Jehovah, whom LDS say is Jesus. Jesus said to the Father: "that they may know you, the ONLY true God" (John 17:3).  And 1 Thessalonians 1:9,10 says they "turned to God from idols to serve the living and true God, and to wait for his Son from heaven."  John 17 and 1 Thessalonians 1 say Jesus' Father is the "true God."  However, Jeremiah 10:10 says "But the LORD is the true God; he is the living God."  Who is the ONLY true God?  Jehovah.  Jesus said the ONLY true God is his Father.  And 1 Thessalonians says we are waiting for the Son of the ONLY true God.  Therefore, Jehovah is the only true God who is Jesus' Father. Luke 8:28 and Mark 5:7 say Jesus is the "Son of the most high God."  But Genesis 14:22 and Psalm 83:17 say "thou, whose name is JEHOVAH, art the most high over all the earth"; and "the LORD, the most high God, the possessor of heaven and earth."  Jehovah, whom LDS say is the Son Jesus, is the most high God, and Jesus is the Son of the most high God, according to the Bible. In order for LDS to maintain their belief, they have no choice but to reject the Bible, for it does not agree with their teaching. There is only one God - Jehovah Elohim.  And Jesus is the Son of God.  LDS reject what the Bible says.  The Bible says Jesus is the Son of the most high God and that Jehovah is the most high God.  The Bible says Jesus is the Son of the ONLY true God and Jehovah is the true God.  And yet LDS will not accept that because it goes against what they are taught. If we were to accept LDS teachings, we would have to believe that there are many Gods who created together but only one God who created "alone...by myself."  The Father and Son are two separate beings but the same being.  Jehovah is Jesus.  But Jehovah is the Father of Jesus. Jesus is the Father AND the Son.  There is no God but the Father of Jesus. Jesus and the Father together are "the...Eternal Father."  There is only ONE Father.  But the "Eternal Father" is the Father OF Jesus.  The Father does but does not have a body of flesh and bone because he is spirit but is not spirit because he is flesh. "In the beginning" our bodies were created in the Son's image, who was not flesh, and also in the Father's image, who is flesh.  They are one God, and we were created in that one God's image.  But they are many Gods - one having flesh and the other not having flesh.  More confusion.       7. "LINE UPON LINE" A BLESSING AND A CURSE   (Back to Top) 2 Nephi 28:29 29 Wo be unto him that shall say: We have received the word of God, and we have need no more of the word of God, for we have enough! Response: The very next verse says God "will give unto the children of men line upon line, precept upon precept, here a little and there a little; and blessed are those who harken unto my precepts, and lend an ear unto my councel, for they shall learn wisdom..." Those who receive "more" of God's word will learn "line upon line" and will learn wisdom and will be "blessed." Isaiah 28:7-13 says God's people did not want God's rest, so he gave them, "line upon line." And because Israel did not want God's rest, it says, "So then, the word of the LORD to them will become: Do and do, do and do, rule on rule, rule on rule; a little here, a little there - so that they will go and fall backward, be injured and snared and captured" - vs. 13.  KJV verse 10 says, "For precept must be upon perecept."  But the words "must be" are not in the Hebrew.  Those words were added by the translators of the KJV Bible. While the Book of Mormon says line upon line (or "rule upon rule") will bring blessing and wisdom, the Bible says line upon line will cause Israel to be cursed - to be captured, snared and fall backward. And God gave it to them not as a blessing but because they didn't want God's rest. So line upon line was not a good thing in Isaiah 28. But in 2 Nephi 29 it was a good thing to be taught line upon line. The Mormon book says we will receive wisdom, while the Bible says we will be snared, captured and will fall backward - i.e., be cursed.  2 Nephi 29:9 says God is the same yesterday, today and forever. D&C 3:2 says God does NOT vary from that which he said.  And yet he said one thing one time then completely changed the meaning another time. Is that consistent? Is that being the same? Is that NOT varying from what God originally said? So the Book of Mormon does not agree with the Bible. In fact, the Book of Mormon only breeds confusion. And that is not of God.       8. BLACK SKIN IS LOATHSOME   (Back to Top) Moses 7:8,22 8 For behold, the Lord shall curse the land with much heat, and the barrenness thereof shall go forth forever; and there was a blackness came upon all the children of Canaan, that they were despised among all people. 22 And Enoch also beheld the residue of the people which were the sons of Adam; and they were a mixture of all the seed of Adam save it was the seed of Cain, for the seed of Cain were black, and had not place among them. Response: "Blackness" came upon the children of Canaan so "they were despised among all people." It is not saying they were "despised" because of sin. It is saying God caused them to be "despised" for the color of their skin.  "Blackness came upon all the children of Canaan, that THEY were despised." And it says "the seed of Cain were black."  Why were the seed of Cain black?  Does Genesis actually say this or support it?  No.  If the Bible doesn't say it, it's not biblical and not true. 2 Nehpi 5:21-24 21 And he had caused the cursing to come upon them, yea, even a sore cursing, because of their iniquity. For behold, they had hardened their hearts against him, that they had become like unto a flint; wherefore, as they were white, and exceedingly fair and delightsome, that they might not be enticing unto my people the Lord God did cause a skin of blackness to come upon them. 22 And thus saith the Lord God: I will cause that they shall be loathsome unto thy people, save they shall repent of their iniquities. 23 And cursed shall be the seed of him that mixeth with their seed; for they shall be cursed even with the same cursing. And the Lord spake it, and it was done. 24 And because of their cursing which was upon them they did become an idle people, full of mischief and subtlety, and did seek in the wilderness for beasts of prey. Response: Because of their sin, they would  be cursed and would have "a skin of blackness" (vs. 21) so they would not be "enticing" (vs. 21) but "loathsome" to God's people (vs. 22). They would no longer be "white" and "delightsome." Whomever mixes with this people of black skin would also be "cursed with the SAME cursing"(vs. 23).  Meaning, whoever mixes with black people will be cursed with black skin as well, and therefore become loathsome.  And these black people who were cursed were "idle people, full of mischief and subtlety" (vs. 24). So according to the Book of Mormon, being white is "delightsome," while being black is "loathsome" and is to be "despised." And God gave them black skin so they would not be "enticing" - i.e., so they would not be attractive. It makes no difference who the people were, for it is saying the color of their skin, which was black, was what caused them to be "despised" and "loathsome." And they were made black because of sin. But it was not the sin that was loathsome or despised; it was their skin color. Alma 3:6-15 6 And the skins of the Lamanites were dark, according to the mark which was set upon their fathers, which was a curse upon them because of their transgression and their rebellion against their brethren, who consisted of Nephi, Jacob, and Joseph, and Sam, who were just and holy men. 7 And their brethren sought to destroy them, therefore they were cursed; and the Lord God set a mark upon them, yea, upon Laman and Lemuel, and also the sons of Ishmael, and Ishmaelitish women. 8 And this was done that their seed might be distinguished from the seed of their brethren, that thereby the Lord God might preserve his people, that they might not mix and believe in incorrect traditions which would prove their destruction. 9 And it came to pass that whosoever did mingle his seed with that of the Lamanites did bring the same curse upon his seed. 10 Therefore, whosoever suffered himself to be led away by the Lamanites was called under that head, and there was a mark set upon him. 11 And it came to pass that whosoever would not believe in the tradition of the Lamanites, but believed those records which were brought out of the land of Jerusalem, and also in the tradition of their fathers, which were correct, who believed in the commandments of God and kept them, were called the Nephites, or the people of Nephi, from that time forth- 12 And it is they who have kept the records which are true of their people, and also of the people of the Lamanites. 13 Now we will return again to the Amlicites, for they also had a mark set upon them; yea, they set the mark upon themselves, yea, even a mark of red upon their foreheads. 14 Thus the word of God is fulfilled, for these are the words which he said to Nephi: Behold, the Lamanites have I cursed, and I will set a mark on them that they and their seed may be separated from thee and thy seed, from this time henceforth and forever, except they repent of their wickedness and turn to me that I may have mercy upon them. 15 And again: I will set a mark upon him that mingleth his seed with thy brethren, that they may be cursed also. Response: The skin of the Lamanites was dark according to the mark God placed on their fathers, "which was a curse upon them because of their transgression" (vs 6). And this was done in order to distinguish - or separate - their seed from others "that thereby the Lord God might preserve his people." This is saying God wanted to preserve his people, the "white" and "delightsome" people.  The mark upon the Amlicites was "red."  So the mark resulted in a color.  For the Lamanites, that color was black skin, which was a curse. To put it simply, God made people black because of their sin, which is a curse from God. And God made them black to separate them from his people in order to "preserve" God's people (those who are "white" and "delightsome"). This means that God's people are "white" and "delightsome," while "black" people are "loathsome" and "despised." But why did sin cause only some people’s skin to become black? Did God show favoritism by making the skin of some who sinned black while not others? Adam and Eve sinned.  Why didn't God make their skin black and loathsome? Why only some and not all? Moses 7:22 says the seed of Cain were black.  The Bible does not teach that sin literally caused people's skin to become black in order to be despised. Genesis 4:15 15 Then the LORD put a mark on Cain so that no one who found him would kill him. Response: The mark on Cain was "so that" anyone who found Cain would not kill him.  If the mark referred to black skin, that would mean people with black skin could not be killed. 1 Nephi 13:15 15 And I beheld the Spirit of the Lord, and it was upon the Gentiles, and they did prosper and obtain the land for their inheritance; and I beheld that they were white, and exceedingly fair and beautiful... Jacob 3:5,8 5 Behold, the Lamanites your brethren, whom ye hate because of their filthiness and the cursing which hath come upon their skins... 8 O my brethren, I fear that unless ye shall repent of your sins that their skins will be whiter than yours... Response: The curse was upon the Lamanites' "skin" (referring to their black skin).  The Spirit of the Lord was upon the "white, and exceedingly fair and beautiful" people so "they did prosper."  And in Jacob 3 in speaking to the "pure in heart" (vs 2), it says if they did not repent of their sins, the skins of the Lamanites, who were black, would have skins "whiter than yours."  Meaning, if the pure in heart did not repent, their skins would literally turn black from sin.  In 2 Nephi 5:21 it says "as they were white, and exceedingly fair and delightsome," God gave them a "skin of blackness."  That means their white skin literally turned black from sin. 3 Nephi 2:14-16 14 And it came to pass that those Lamanites who had united with the Nephites were numbered among the Nephites; 15 And their curse was taken from them, and their skin became white like unto the Nephites; 16 And their young men and their daughters became exceedingly fair... Response: The Lamanties, who were black, "converted unto the Lord" (vs. 12). And after converting to the Lord, "their curse was taken from them, and their skin became white." 1 Nephi 13:15 says that "white" is "exceedingly fair and beautiful."  So after the Lamanites repented, their curse was lifted, and they became white again, causing their sons and daughters to "became exceedingly fair" and beautiful.  They were no longer black and "loathsome" and "despised." According to Mormonism, black skin is a curse for sin.  And when black people repent, they turn white again, and their sons and daughters become "exceedingly fair and beautiful," no longer "loathsome" and "despised."  That means there should not be any black people in the LDS church.  For having turned to the Lord, their skins should have turned white and exceedingly fair and beautiful.

 

9. JESUS – THE FATHER AND THE SON   (Back to Top) D&C 20:28 28 Which Father, Son and Holy Ghost are one God, infinite and eternal, without end. Amen. Articles Of Faith 1 We believe in God, the Eternal Father, and in his Son, Jesus Christ, and in the Holy Ghost. Response: D&C 20 says the Father, Son and Holy Spirit together are one God. But Articles of Faith separates God the Eternal Father from the Son and Holy Ghost, for it says LDS believe in God the Eternal Father and the Son and the Spirit. Mosiah 15:1-5 1 And now Abinadi said unto them: I would that ye should understand that God himself shall come down among the children of men, and shall redeem his people. 2 And because he dwelleth in flesh he shall be called the Son of God, and having subjected the flesh to the will of the Father, being the Father and the Son- 3 The Father, because he was conceived by the power of God; and the Son, because of the flesh; thus becoming the Father and Son- 4 And they are one God, yea, the very Eternal Father of heaven and of earth. Response: "God himself" will come down, and "because he (God) dwelleth in the flesh he shall be called the Son of God." Very clearly, because "God himself" became flesh, "he" (God) is the "Son of God." This statement says God himself is his own Son when he became flesh. And it says the "Son of God" having subjected his flesh to the Father's will, "being the Father and the Son." Jesus is the Son only because of his flesh. The Father and Son are not two separate beings but are the same person. And verse 4 says, "And they are one God, yea, the very Eternal Father of heaven and of earth." Who is the Eternal Father? God (including the Son). Verse 5: "And thus the flesh becoming subject to the Spirit, or the Son to the Father, being one God." The flesh (Son) was subject to the Spirit (Father). Meaning, the "flesh" = the Son; the "Spirit" = the Father. When God become flesh, then he became the Son. That would mean apart from the flesh, he is God the Father, making God one person. The Father is Spirit, not flesh (verse 5 says the flesh submitted to the Spirit - i.e., the Son submitted to the Father. This means the Son is flesh and the Father is Spirit, not flesh). Regardless of what Mormons say they believe, their books teach that God the Father is NOT spirit (because he has flesh and bone) but IS spirit (and spirit does not have flesh and bone). And when he, being spirit, became flesh, then he became his own Son. 1 Nephi 11:21 21 And the angel said unto me: Behold the Lamb of God, yea, even the Son of the Eternal Father! Response: Articles of Faith says LDS believe in the "Eternal Father" and in his Son Jesus. But Mosiah 15:4 says Jesus and the Father are "one God...the...Eternal Father." However, 1 Nephi 11 says Jesus is the Son of the Eternal Father. Mosiah 15 says when God became flesh he became the Son. It says Jesus "being the Father and the Son." And "they are one God, yea, the very Eternal Father." Therefore, Jesus and the Father together are the Eternal Father.  Jesus' Father alone is the Eternal Father.  Jesus is the Son of the Eternal Father.  The Eternal Father alone is God.  Jesus is "the" God.  Jesus is Jehovah.  Jehovah is the Holy Father whose Son is Jesus.  Jesus is the Father and the Son.  The Father is spirit, but when he became flesh he became the Son (his own Son).  The Father IS spirit, "the" spirit of truth.  "The" spirit of truth is the Holy Spirit.  Jesus is "the" spirit of truth.  So the Father and the Son are "the" spirit of truth, who is the Holy Spirit.  But God is flesh and bone and not spirit.  The Father, Son and Holy Spirit are ONE God.  But they are many "Gods."  What is spirit does not have flesh and bone.  The Holy Spirit IS spirit, and therefore is not flesh and bone.  "Man" (flesh and bone) Is spirit.  Spirit is matter, and so can be detected by the senses, has weight and is a physical body.  And God (the Father and the Son) created together "by myself." There is no harmony between the BofM and D&C.  Nor do they agree with the Bible.       10. THE HOLY SPIRIT BECAME FLESH   (Back to Top) D&C 93:3,4 3 And that I am in the Father, and the Father in me, and the Father and I are one - 4 The Father because he gave me of his fulness, and the Son because I was in the world and made flesh my tabernacle, and dwelt among the sons of men. Response: If the Father had a body of flesh apart from Jesus, how could the Father be in Jesus? Jesus is the Son "because (he) was in the world and made flesh (his) tabernacle." So what was he before he became flesh? If he was not the Son until he made flesh his tabernacle, who was he before he became the Son? And again, if becoming flesh made him the Son, and if the Father had a body of flesh, then he too would become the Son because of his flesh. For it says becoming flesh makes God the Son of God (his own Son). D&C 93:11 11 And I, John, bear record that I beheld his glory, as the glory of the Only Begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth, even the Spirit of truth, which came and dwelt in the flesh, and dwelt among us. Response: "The" Spirit of truth is the Holy Spirit. So if the Spirit of truth "came and dwelt in the flesh," then the Son of God was the Holy Spirit who became flesh. And yet Mormon teaching states that the Father, Son and Holy Spirit are three separate beings. The Bible says Jesus will send "another Counselor to be with you forever - the Spirit of truth" (John 14:17). The Counselor is "the" Spirit of truth. John 14:26 says, "the Counselor, the Holy Spirit." So the Counselor is the spirit of truth who is the Holy Spirit ("Holy Ghost" - KJV). So according to D&C 93, Jesus is the Holy Spirit (the Spirit of truth) who became flesh. This also teaches that there are not three persons in the Godhead but one. If the Father is the spirit of truth who is the Holy Spirit, and if the Son is the spirit of truth who is the Holy Spirit, then the Father and Son are the Holy Spirit (one person).  But LDS do not agree with this, even though that's what their books literally say. D&C 93:26 26 The Spirit of truth is of God. I am the Spirit of truth, and John bore record of me, saying: He received a fulness of truth, yea, even of all truth; Response: Here, Jesus claims he is the Spirit of truth. But according to the Bible, the Holy Spirit is the Spirit of truth.  Mosiah 15 says the Spirit in the flesh (God the Father) became the Son. And the Spirit is both the Father and the Son - "one God," the "Eternal Father." The Spirit of truth (the Holy Spirit) is the one God. And when he (the Holy Spirit) became flesh, he became the Father and the Son. This teaches that God the Father is Spirit and not flesh. And it teaches that God is one person.  Although Mormons say this is not what they believe, this is, however, what the BofM and D&C clearly teach.       11. 2ND COMING WHEN JOSEPH SMITH WOULD BE 85   (Back to Top) D&C 130:14,15,16 14 I was once praying very earnestly to know the time of the coming of the Son of Man, when I heard a voice repeat the following: 15 Joseph, my son, if thou livest until thou art eighty-five years old, thou shalt see the face of the Son of Man; therefore let this suffice, and trouble me no more on this matter. 16 I was left thus, without being able to decide whether this coming referred to he beginning of the millennium or to some previous appearing, or whether I should die and thus see his face. Response: Joseph Smith asked a specific question: When is the 2nd coming?  And he was given a specific answer: If you're alive at 85, you will see.  The interpretation is very clear. Joseph Smith was praying as to the "time" of Jesus’ 2nd coming. He was told if he livest (if he was alive) at 85 years old, he would see Jesus’ face. The time of Jesus’ coming would be the year Joseph Smith would have been 85 years old. This could not refer to his death, for he was told if he "livest" until 85 he would "see" Jesus’ face. In verse 16 Joseph Smith said he could not "decide" the meaning, as if it was his choice what God meant.  Why would he have to decide?  He asked a specific question and received a specific answer.  Do LDS believe if they ask God for something that the Lord will NOT answer?  Joseph Smith asked: What is the TIME of the 2nd coming?  And God told him:  If you're ALIVE at 85, you will see.  See what?  What Jospeh Smith asked: the TME of the 2nd coming. And certainly the 2nd coming of Jesus was not dependent upon whether one man was alive or not. That would mean Jesus was ready to come back until Joseph Smith died and spoiled the 2nd coming of Jesus for the rest of the world.  The truth is, Joseph Smith was a false prophet who lied.       12. GODS ABOVE ALL THINGS  (Back to Top) D&C 132:20 20 Then shall they be gods, because they have no end; therefore shall they be from everlasting to everlasting, because they continue; then they shall be above all, because all things are subject to them. Then shall they be gods, because they have all power, and the angels are subject to them. Response: Mormons who attain exaltation through marriage will become gods who will be "above all, because all things are subject to them." This does not exclude God Almighty, so it includes him. Mormons quote Revelations 21:7 that says we will inherit "all things." And they take it literally – that will will inherit ALL things. So the same must be true of D&C 132:20: They are gods above ALL and ALL things are subject to them, including God Almighty. It also says that in being gods, "shall they be from everlasting to everlasting." This is what Psalm 90:2 says of God. He is "from everlasting to everlasting." But "from everlasting" means to have no beginning. So how could man, who has a beginning, now have no beginning? We will have no end, having eternal life. But we had a beginning. So man, who has a beginning, will now have no beginning.  This makes them as great, if not greater, than God Almighty, for they will have "ALL power."     13. JOSEPH SMITH HEAD OF THE CHURCH   (Back to Top) D&C 28:6,7 6 And thou shalt not command him who is at thy head, and at the head of the church; 7 For I have given him the keys of the mysteries, and the revelations which are sealed, until I shall appoint unto them another in his stead. Response: Oliver Cowdery could not command Joseph Smith "who is at thy head, and at the head of the church." Colossians 1:18 says of Jesus: "And he is the head of the body, the church." But Joseph Smith is the head of the church he started. This either means that the church Joseph Smith started is a different one than the one Jesus started, or Joseph Smith took over Jesus' position as head of Jesus' church.  If Joseph Smith started a different church than the one Jesus started, then the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter Day Saints is a false church and NOT the one started by Jesus.  If Joseph Smith claims to have the same church as the one Jesus started, then Joseph Smith has placed himself as head of Jesus' church, making himself greater than the Son of God.  Either way it's wrong, for Joseph Smith has placed himself as the head over his church.  However, Jesus is the head of the true church.       14. JESUS IS GOD ALMIGHTY   (Back to Top) D&C 20:21 21 Wherefore, the Almighty God gave his only Begotten SonResponse: The Almighty God's Son is Jesus. D&C 110:3,4 says Jesus is Jehovah. And LDS say the Father and the Son are two separate beings. If the Almighty God's Son is Jehovah (Jesus), then the Almighty God cannot be Jehovah. Genesis 17:1 (KJV) 1 …the LORD appeared to Abram, and said unto him, I am the Almighty GodExodus 6:2,3 (KJV) 2 And God spake unto Moses, and said unto him, I am the LORD: 3 And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty, but by my name JEHOVAH was I not known to them. Response: Jehovah ("the LORD") is God Almighty. As in Genesis 17, Jehovah (LORD) is "the Almighty God." And the Almighty God is Jehovah. So again we see that D&C does not agree with the Bible.  D&C says the Almighty God is the Father of Jesus, who is Jehovah.  But the Bible says Jehovah is the Almighty God.  D&C and the BofM teach that the Almighty God and Jehovah are two separate beings.  But the Bible teaches that the Almighty God and Jehovah are the same person, the same God. And so we see yet again that the BofM and D&C do not agree with the Bible.     CONCLUSION   (Back to Top) D&C 21:5 (God speaking of Joseph Smith) 5 For his word ye shall receive, as if from mine own mouth, in all patience and faith. Response: If we were to believe that, we would have to also believe God is very confused over who he, God, is.  D&C 3:2 said God does not vary from that which he said.  But time and time again we see that D&C and the BofM are confusing and contradictory, varying from what God said in the Bible.  D&C and the BofM even vary from one another. Introduction to the Book of Mormon paragraph 6 ...the Prophet Joseph Smith said: 'I told the brethren that the Book of Mormon was the most correct book on earth, and is the keystone of our religion, and that a man would get nearer to God by abiding by its precepts, than any other book.' Response: How could a person get nearer to God by abiding by the precepts of the Book of Mormon when it is totally confused over who God is?  The Book of Mormon and Doctrine and Covenants do not agree with each other and certainly not with the Bible, God’s true word. Mormons claim that their books are not to be taken literally.  However, Articles of Faith states: "We believe in the literal gathering of Israel and in the restoration of the Ten Tribes."  And they believe in the literal temple on earth (D&C 57:3; 59 intro), and the new Jerusalem being a literal city on earth (D&C 84:4,5). Moroni 10:4 4 And when ye shall receive these things, I would exhort you that ye would ask God, the Eternal Father, in the name of Christ, if these things are not true; and if ye shall ask with a sincere heart, with real intent, having faith in Christ, he will manifest the truth of it unto you, by the power of the Holy Ghost. Response: LDS believe this is backed up with James 1:5: "If any on you lacks wisdom, he should ask God, who gives generously to all without finding fault, and it will be given to him."  They believe if we ask God if the BofM is true, God will tell us apart from comparing its teachings with the Bible.  But let's look at what James is referring to. 1) The people in James were already born again through the word (James 1:18). 2) The word was planted in them (1:21). 3) They were hearers of the word only, not doers (1:22-25). They had heard the gospel and had believed, but they were not obeying it.  So James told them faith requires obedience (James 2:14-26).  If they wanted wisdom, all they needed to do was ask God with faith.  However, faith means we obey. John 15:7 7 If you remain in me and my words remain in you, ask whatever you wish, and it will be given you. Response: If Jesus' words remain in us to where we obey, then we can ask and receive. Proverbs 1:1,2 1 The proverbs of Solomon... 2 ...for attaining wisdom... Proverbs 2:1-6,10 1 My son, if you accept my words and store up my commands within you, 2 turning your ear to wisdom and applying your heart to understanding, 3 and if you call out for insight and cry aloud for understanding, 4 and if you look for it as for silver and search for it as for hidden treasure, 5 then you will understand the fear of the LORD and find the knowledge of God. 6 For the LORD gives wisdom... 10 For wisdom will enter your heart... Response: If we store up God's teachings in our heart, asking for wisdom and understanding, then we will "understand the fear of the LORD."  And "The fear of the LORD is the beginning of wisdom" (Prov. 9:10).  In order to receive wisdom, we have to store up God's teachings in our heart and obey, asking for wisdom.  That's what James referred to.  They were not remaining in the word nor obeying, so they were not receiving wisdom. In Acts 17:10-12 when Paul preached the gospel to the Bereans, it says they "examined the Scriptures every day to see if what Paul said was true."  Why didn't they just ask God if these things were true?  Because the "Scriptures...are able to make (us) wise for salvation through faith in Christ Jesus" (2 Timothy 3:15).  Through the Scriptures we gain wisdom by the Spirit of God.  If we want to know if what we hear is true, we are to examine the Scriptures - the Bible.  We compare all things with the Scriptures Jesus and the apostles used (Luke 24:27,44,45).  And the NT is what they taught from the OT. Acts 19:8 (KJV) 8 And he went into the synogogue, and spake boldly for the space of three months, disputing and persuading the things concerning the kingdom of God. 1 Timothy 1:3 (KJV) 3 ...that thou mightest charge some that they teach no other doctrine... 2 Timothy 3:16 (KJV) 16 All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness. Acts 17:2 2 ...he reasoned with them from the Scriptures... Response: The apostles debated those who taught false doctrine.  And they used "the Scriptures" to prove they were right and false teachers were wrong.  As Paul said to Timothy, he was to "charge some that they teach no other doctrine other than what Paul and the apostles taught.  Do we have all of gospel in the NT?  Paul said when he presented the gospel he had received from Jesus to the other apostles, "those men added nothing to my message" (Gal. 2:6). And Peter said Paul "writes the same way in all his letters" (2 Peter 3:16).  That means whatever letters we do not possess that Paul wrote, they would contain no other doctrine other than what we have in the NT.  For Paul also said the other apostles "added NOTHING to my message."  So if the other apostles wrote letters we do not have, they would say NOTHING beyond what Paul said in the NT.  Therefore, what we have in the NT is the fulness of the gospel that Jesus gave his disciples to give to the church.  What one apostle taught, the others could not add to, for they all had the exact same gospel.  And because Paul wrote the same way in ALL his letters, no lost letter of Paul's would change what the NT says.  And we are to charge others to "teach no other doctrine,"  using the Scriptures "for reproof (and) for correction." Acts 18:28 says about Paul: "For he vigorously refuted the Jews in public debate, proving from the Scriptures that Jesus was the Christ."  Because the Jews were in error concerning the gospel, Paul and the other apostles debated them, proving from the Scriptures that what the apostles taught was right, and therefore, what the Jews believed was wrong.  As Jesus said, "you are in error because you do not know the Scriptures" (Matt. 22:29). 2 Nephi 12:1-3 plagerizes Isaiah 2:1-3 that says, "for out of Zion shall go forth the law, and the word of the LORD from Jerusalem" (KJV).  When Jesus rose from the dead, he taught his disciples about himself from the OT (Luke 24:27,44,45). Luke 24:47 (KJV) 47 And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem. Response: The gospel would be preached "among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem."  The gospel that "ALL nations" would receive would be the gospel that began "at Jerusalem."  Isaiah 2:3 foretold this, which 2 Nephi 12:3 admitted.  The word of the Lord would go out from Jerusalem.  And Jesus not only prayed for his disciples, he prayed "for them also which shall believe on me through their word" (John 17:20).  The gospel his disciples preached in the NT would be the same gospel that would go out from Jerusalem to "ALL nations."  It does not say "another word" would go out from America.  And Paul said he spoke "none other things than those which the prophets and Moses did say should come" (Acts 26:22). Because the OT did not foretell the gospel going forth out of America, then no gospel sent by Jesus came out of America.  The word of the Lord came out of Jerusalem, fulfilled in Acts, and is sent unto "ALL nations."  For Jesus prayed for those who would believe on him through the apostles' message in the NT (that's us who believe in the gospel found only in the Bible). John 10:16 16 I have other sheep that are not of this sheep pen.  I must bring them also.  They too will listen to my voice... Response: LDS use this passage to try and prove that Jesus was referring to Jews (sheep) in America.  LDS believe that a lost tribe of Israel came to America and, after Jesus rose from the dead, Jesus came to America to preach to them.  This other tribe of Israel in America was called "Nephites."  However, Nephites are not in the Bible. Even in Revelation 7:4-8 when it mentions "all the tribes of Israel" in the last days, Nephites are not mentioned. LDS believe Jesus was speaking literally when he said his sheep hear his voice.  So in order for his sheep (Israel) to literally hear Jesus' voice, he had to come to America to a lost tribe and preach to them. However, he told the Jews, "you do not believe because you are not my sheep" (John 10:26).  He said, "My sheep listen to my voice" (vs. 27).  And in John 8 Jesus again told the Jews, "you are unable to hear what I have to say" (vs. 43); and, "He who belongs to God hears what God says.  The reason you do not hear is that you do not belong to God" (vs. 47). So we see that the Jews Jesus was speaking to did not hear God's voice and did not belong to God.  They literally heard his voice, but they did not "hear" (understand) what he was saying.  Therefore, Jesus was not referring to literal Jews when he said he had other sheep.  He was speaking of Gentiles as being the other sheep (Isaiah 49:22; Ephesians 2:11-19; Romans 15:8-12).  If literal Jews did not hear his voice and were not his sheep, then Jesus was not speaking literally. LDS also quote Matthew 10:5,6: "Do not go among the Gentiles or enter any town of the Samaritans.  Go rather to the lost sheep of Israel."  They believe that because of this passage, "lost sheep" does not refer to Gentiles but only to Israel.  In Luke 15:1-7 "lost sheep" refers to sinners.  And in Luke 15:11-32 it teaches about the prodigal son.  He "was dead and is alive again; he was lost and is found" (vs. 32).  So again, "lost" refers to dead in sin.  As Jesus said, "For I have not come to call the righteous, but sinners" (Matt. 9:13).  He came to the lost sheep of Israel - sinners. Galatians 3:7-9 7 Understand, then, that those who believe are children of Abraham. 8 The Scripture foresaw that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, and announced the gospel in advance to Abraham: 'All nations will be blessed through you.' 9 So those who have faith are blessed along with Abraham, the man of faith. Response: The OT foretold that Gentiles would be children of Abraham.  They would be God's sheep too.  As Ephesians 3:6 says, "through the gospel the Gentiles are heirs together with Israel, members together of one body."  Abraham would be the father of MANY nations - Gentile as well as Jew.  And this is what Jesus meant when he told Jews that they - Jews - were not his only sheep.  Gentiles would be his sheep too.  It was foretold in the OT - even to Abraham - and fulfilled in the NT.  While alive Jesus said he was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel.  But after he rose from he dead he told his disciples to preach to "ALL nations" (Matt. 28:19).  In Acts 10 Peter was sent to preach to Gentiles.  The Bible does not teach that there was a lost tribe of Israel that came to America.  So LDS add to the Scriptures and are incorrect. LDS also use Ezekiel 37:15-17 to try and prove that the Bible foretold the coming of the Book of Mormon.  They claim the two "sticks" refer to the Bible and the BofM.  But again, let's look at it in context.  In verses 18-22 God gave the interpretation of the two sticks. Ezekiel 37:22 22 I will make them one nation in the land, on the mountains of Israel.  There will be one king over all of them and they will never again be two nations or be divided into two kingdoms. Response: They (Judah and Ephraim) will no longer be two nations; they will become "one nation." Hosea 1:11 also supports this.  Judah and Ephraim will no longer be two nations (two sticks); they will become one nation (one stick). LDS also say people used to write on sticks in those days.  But in Habakkuk 2:2 they wrote on tablets.  And in Ezekiel 3:2 it spoke of a scroll.  In fact, the Bible mentions tablets and scrolls that people wrote on, but never "sticks."  In Ezekiel 37 it was symbolic, just as most of Ezekiel is symbolic, not literal. LDS will say that the word "Trinity" is not in the Bible as an excuse as to why the teaching is not biblical.  However, they will turn around and believe MANY things that are not in the Bible (e.g., Nephites, Lehi, God living on the planet Kolob, etc.). They add words that are not in the Bible and will say the Bible is translated wrong, all in an attempt to try to get out of the clear fact that the Bible does not support their beliefs. The BofM and D&C are not in harmony with the Bible.  They are not the word of God but the word of man. (Please write "LDS" in Subject line of e-mail. Thanks.) E-mail: Greg                      
 

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Book of Mormon and Doctrine and Covenants 2008 October

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Shows that the two books are inconsistent and do not agree with the Bible.

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